Richard’s comment on Morgan reminds
me of a connection I had been wondering about.
Does Morgan’s thesis on the rise of slavery resonate with Woods’ thesis
on how America realized the evil of slavery?
In response to Dr. Johnson’s quip
re: how strange it is that the lovers of liberty drive slaves, Morgan’s
explanation seemed to argue that the connection was natural. Does Wood go on to show that the connection
was so natural that no one would notice the evil slavery until the Revolution broke
up the hierarchies in which everyone lived (and which were so prevalent that they masked the oppression of slavery)?
It seems that one of the effects of
the Revolution (according to Wood) was to open our eyes to the evils of
slavery, that until then it had just been on a spectrum of control (along with
indentured servants, who were also beaten).
“Slavery could be regarded,
therefore, as merely the most base and degraded status in a society of several
degrees of unfreedom, and most colonists felt little need as yet either to
attack or to defend slavery any more than other forms of dependency and
debasement.”
I understand where he’s coming
from, though there were movements against slavery before the Revolution. For example, it seemed to me that they were
resisting nagging doubts about slavery surfaced by Christianity (eg, making
slaves work on the Sabbath and ruling that conversion didn’t change a slave’s
status).
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